
Originally Posted by
dubioz
Not unconstitutional at all. And not discriminatory. This would be a valid classification. Everyone who has the ability to work, will have the ability to work to be eligible to vote. Democracy is not about equality, it is about equal opportunity.
Just imagine if we say everyone HAS THE RIGHT TO VOTE without qualification. Even little children would be qualified to vote, yet NO ONE QUESTIONS that there should be a minimum age to vote.
Of course, there should be controls on the taxpayer vote, e.g. those who already earned the right to vote will not be disqualified because a poor economy made him lose his job, retirees should retain the right, etc.
THOSE WHO ACTUALLY HELP THE GOVERNMENT, SHOULD HAVE THE BIGGEST SAY IN GOVERNMENT.
What qualification are you referring then? That there are peope who are poor who cannot pay taxes and there are those who can pay taxes because of they are rich.
Your valid classificatio0n. Of course children are not allowed to vote because of their inherent inability to comprehend what they are doing but to say that being discriminated because you dont pay taxes is proscribed under the Constitution. As I have said your being a citizen is not conditioned upon your ability to pay taxes.
If you are taking up law please read carefully the case of People v. Cayat. The case speaks about what is considered a valid classification. Or read magtajas v. pryce properties or the Ormoc Sugar Mills case.