
Originally Posted by
Malic
nice input.
My thoughts...
Jesus never made a clear stand on how they should treat Moses and the prophets. But in the book of Matthew we find a verse that somehow gives light to this issue. There, in that verse it says," I came not to abolish the law but to fulfill it".
The nature of the Mosaic Law has three sides 1) the regulatory/ritualistic/ceremonial side 2) the Decalogue (Commandments) side 3) the revelatory or eschatological side. It was the revelatory side of the law in which Jesus made reference to since everything was already laid down/fulfilled by Moses except the prophecy about his divinity. Proof of the revelatory side of the law are as follows:
- Lk. 24:44 "...everything written about me in the Law of Moses and the Prophets and the Psalms must be fulfilled."
- Mt. 5:17-18 (I'm expanding the verse (you) offered): “Do not think I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them.
For truly, I say to you, until heaven and earth pass away, not an iota, not a dot, will pass from the Law until all is accomplished”
To elucidate the verse given, the term "fulfill" in Hebrew is
pleroo alluding to the prophetic side of the law. You see, Matthew would have used the word "confirm the law" instead of fulfill the law if Jesus was indeed referring to the ceremonial law or the decalogue.

Originally Posted by
Malic
Common sense also tells us that as a faithful Jew,Jesus performed the obligatory judaistic practices and customs. Therefore to me,we can safely say that Jesus never had any intentions of demolishing Moses and the prophets.
You are correct...but one must remember that Jesus was prophesied as the Messiah whom the prophets foretold to be one "born under the law." Thus, it wasn't just simply a matter of compliance to the ordinances or traditions but it was a matter of him
being the fulfillment of the law and the prophesy. Hence, the observance of Jewish practices was just only secondary, incidental and at best a practical act for Jesus to be understood by the Jews during his ministry.

Originally Posted by
Malic
Naturally the Apostles simply followed what their master was doing and preached what their master taught.
Actually, it was customary for Jesus and the apostles being Jews to observe the rites and traditions taught by Moses. Jesus didn't have to tell/remind himself or the Apostles all the time about those ordinances. The only crucial time when Jesus spoke of Moses' Law was when Jesus was questioned for healing during the Sabbath and when he was asked about the greatest commandment in which he replied and gave the greatest commandment of all which is LOVE.
The rest of Jesus ministry was spent on healing people, teaching parables and teaching new virtues than wallow in a fruitless discussion with the Pharisees about the law.

Originally Posted by
Malic
In other words they never excluded Moses while teaching about Jesus.
Yes. But they thought that teaching people to follow Jesus and to follow Moses' Law was enough to carry out the Christian faith in other regions. But they were proven wrong. They found that it was difficult for non-Jews to follow the rigid practices of the Jews until they were told by Paul in Antioch in which Peter found merit in Paul's points against those laws.
"Brothers, you know that some time ago God made a choice among you that the Gentiles might hear from my lips the message of the gospel and believe. 8God, who knows the heart, showed that he accepted them by giving the Holy Spirit to them, just as he did to us. 9He made no distinction between us and them, for he purified their hearts by faith. 10Now then, why do you try to test God by putting on the necks of the disciples a yoke that neither we nor our fathers have been able to bear? 11No! We believe it is through the grace of our Lord Jesus that we are saved, just as they are." (Acts 15:6-11)

Originally Posted by
Malic
Came Paul...who never was with Jesus,never heard Jesus' teachings and after conversion never went to Jerusalem to learn from the Apostles. Only after 3 years did he went to see the apostles. and according to him in the book of galatians that his gospel is not from men and nobody taught him about it,that includes The apsotles, but he claimed it to be a direct revelation from Jesus.
Yes. Paul was never one of the original disciples. He even was involved in the persecution of the early Christians. I think his being not part of the original disciples is an issue. Jesus or God had a way of choosing people to do the job. Paul's appointment had a particular or special reason in the same way he chose dubious personalities in the Old Testament as Moses (who described himself to be slow of speech and slow of tongue), King Solomon, Jonah etc.
Paul's appointment in this case was meant to dissipate the biases of early Christians who were blinded mostly of the old and rigid traditions of the Jews. Paul's independence of thought was crucial to establish restraint among Jewish Christians to be more tolerant and considerate to Christians who did not belong to their tribe or legion.

Originally Posted by
Malic
further research in the bible will show us that Paul had conflicts with the apostles and Jewish christian. I believe that this conflict is due to the fact that Paul preached a different christianity than what the Apostles taught.
This is true. These differences were not really "irreconcilable differences." In fact the Bible is explicit that that though Paul was in many instances in conflict with the Apostles and other Christians they were able to finally come to terms with each other where both had to respect the practices of the Jewish Christians and the Gentile converts.
Unpleasantries among believers are not always bad if only to prove that we are NOT PERFECT. The beauty of such unpleasantries between Paul and Peter was that they never used such imperfections to hate each other but to strengthen their resolve to preach the Gospel despite the adversity and diversity of points of view.
Salam!